You're the one who doesn't understand statistics.
"49.9/100%"? I hope you can see the mistake here.
Yes, there is a chance that a coin will land on its side when flipped, but as I said before this probability is almost surely 0. Not your arbitrarily chosen 0.2% of landing on its side. The proof is an appeal to the Strong law of large numbers.
In fact, your third paragraph seems to be alluding to the Strong law of large numbers. However, your use of language is so incoherent I have difficulty recognizing your argument. I'll assume you're telling me that if the probability of getting heads is 50% and you flip the coin then the probability is 50%. Yes, tautology is tautologous.
Did you even read my explanation? The only "limits" I'm placing are that this coin has a heads and tails side, with a probability unknown to you of getting heads on a flip. Again, I'll say the chance of the coin landing on the side is almost surely 0. There's no other trick involved, like rolling the coin. What you seem unable to grasp is that situation involves the coin already being flipped once and you have seen that outcome to be heads.
You don't know the true probability of getting heads. You do know that probability by definition lies in the [0,1] range. The intuition to solving this problem is that for any given probability, p, you can flip the coin N number of times but when you flip the coin and you get tails the first time then you as good as discard this result because you have the knowledge that the first outcome has to be heads. For low values of getting heads (p) you'll be discarding more results, so your average or expected probability of getting heads must be over 50%. If you formally do the mathematics you'll get the result of 2/3.
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